EC-COUNCIL 312-50 시험문제

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시험 번호/코드: 312-50
시험 이름: EC-COUNCIL (Ethical Hacker Certified)
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NO.1 You are footprinting an organization to gather competitive intelligence. You visit
the company's website for contact information and telephone numbers but do not
find it listed there. You know that they had the entire staff directory listed on their
website 12 months ago but not it is not there.
How would it be possible for you to retrieve information from the website that is
outdated?
A. Visit google's search engine and view the cached copy.
B. Visit Archive.org web site to retrieve the Internet archive of the company's website.
C. Crawl the entire website and store them into your computer.
D. Visit the company's partners and customers website for this information.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following activities will NOT be considered as passive footprinting?
A. Go through the rubbish to find out any information that might have been discarded.
B. Search on financial site such as Yahoo Financial to identify assets.
C. Scan the range of IP address found in the target DNS database.
D. Perform multiples queries using a search engine.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are footprinting Acme.com to gather competitive intelligence. You visit the
acme.com websire for contact information and telephone number numbers but do
not find it listed there. You know that they had the entire staff directory listed on
their website 12 months ago but now it is not there. How would it be possible for you
to retrieve information from the website that is outdated?
A. Visit google search engine and view the cached copy.
B. Visit Archive.org site to retrieve the Internet archive of the acme website.
C. Crawl the entire website and store them into your computer.
D. Visit the company's partners and customers website for this information.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which one of the following is defined as the process of distributing incorrect
Internet Protocol (IP) addresses/names with the intent of diverting traffic?
A. Network aliasing
B. Domain Name Server (DNS) poisoning
C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
D. Port scanning
Answer: B

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NO.5 Where should a security tester be looking for information that could be used by an
attacker against an organization? (Select all that apply)
A. CHAT rooms
B. WHOIS database
C. News groups
D. Web sites
E. Search engines
F. Organization's own web site
Answer: A, B, C, D, E, F

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NO.6 User which Federal Statutes does FBI investigate for computer crimes involving
e-mail scams and mail fraud?
A. 18 U.S.C 1029 Possession of Access Devices
B. 18 U.S.C 1030 Fraud and related activity in connection with computers
C. 18 U.S.C 1343 Fraud by wire, radio or television
D. 18 U.S.C 1361 Injury to Government Property
E. 18 U.S.C 1362 Government communication systems
F. 18 U.S.C 1831 Economic Espionage Act
G. 18 U.S.C 1832 Trade Secrets Act
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is "Hacktivism"?
A. Hacking for a cause
B. Hacking ruthlessly
C. An association which groups activists
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are the two basic types of attacks?(Choose two.
A. DoS
B. Passive
C. Sniffing
D. Active
E. Cracking
Answer: B, D

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NO.9 A Certkiller security System Administrator is reviewing the network system log files.
He notes the following:
- Network log files are at 5 MB at 12:00 noon.
-At 14:00 hours, the log files at 3 MB.
What should he assume has happened and what should he do about the situation?
A. He should contact the attacker's ISP as soon as possible and have the connection
disconnected.
B. He should log the event as suspicious activity, continue to investigate, and take further
steps according to site security policy.
C. He should log the file size, and archive the information, because the router crashed.
D. He should run a file system check, because the Syslog server has a self correcting file
system problem.
E. He should disconnect from the Internet discontinue any further unauthorized use,
because an attack has taken place.
Answer: B

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NO.10 How does Traceroute map the route that a packet travels from point A to point B?
A. It uses a TCP Timestamp packet that will elicit a time exceed in transit message.
B. It uses a protocol that will be rejected at the gateways on its way to its destination.
C. It manipulates the value of time to live (TTL) parameter packet to elicit a time
exceeded in transit message.
D. It manipulated flags within packets to force gateways into generating error messages.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following tools are used for footprinting?(Choose four.
A. Sam Spade
B. NSLookup
C. Traceroute
D. Neotrace
E. Cheops
Answer: A, B, C, D

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NO.12 What is the essential difference between an 'Ethical Hacker' and a 'Cracker'?
A. The ethical hacker does not use the same techniques or skills as a cracker.
B. The ethical hacker does it strictly for financial motives unlike a cracker.
C. The ethical hacker has authorization from the owner of the target.
D. The ethical hacker is just a cracker who is getting paid.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Your Certkiller trainee Sandra asks you which are the four existing Regional
Internet Registry (RIR's)?
A. APNIC, PICNIC, ARIN, LACNIC
B. RIPE NCC, LACNIC, ARIN, APNIC
C. RIPE NCC, NANIC, ARIN, APNIC
D. RIPE NCC, ARIN, APNIC, LATNIC
Answer: B

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NO.14 A very useful resource for passively gathering information about a target company
is:
A. Host scanning
B. Whois search
C. Traceroute
D. Ping sweep
Answer: B

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NO.15 You receive an email with the following message:
Hello Steve,
We are having technical difficulty in restoring user database record after the recent
blackout. Your account data is corrupted. Please logon to the SuperEmailServices.com
and change your password.
http://www.supermailservices.com@0xde.0xad.0xbe.0xef/support/logon.htm
If you do not reset your password within 7 days, your account will be permanently
disabled locking you out from our e-mail services.
Sincerely,
Technical Support
SuperEmailServices
From this e-mail you suspect that this message was sent by some hacker since you
have been using their e-mail services for the last 2 years and they have never sent
out an e-mail such as this. You also observe the URL in the message and confirm
your suspicion about 0xde.0xad.0xbde.0xef which looks like hexadecimal numbers.
You immediately enter the following at Windows 2000 command prompt:
Ping0xde.0xad.0xbe.0xef
You get a response with a valid IP address.
What is the obstructed IP address in the e-mail URL?
A. 222.173.190.239
B. 233.34.45.64
C. 54.23.56.55
D. 199.223.23.45
Answer: A

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NO.16 Who is an Ethical Hacker?
A. A person whohacksfor ethical reasons
B. A person whohacksfor an ethical cause
C. A person whohacksfor defensive purposes
D. A person whohacksfor offensive purposes
Answer: C

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NO.17 According to the CEH methodology, what is the next step to be performed after
footprinting?
A. Enumeration
B. Scanning
C. System Hacking
D. Social Engineering
E. Expanding Influence
Answer: B

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NO.18 To what does "message repudiation" refer to what concept in the realm of email
security?
A. Message repudiation means a user can validate which mail server or servers a message
was passed through.
B. Message repudiation means a user can claim damages for a mail message that
damaged their reputation.
C. Message repudiation means a recipient can be sure that a message was sent from a
particular person.
D. Message repudiation means a recipient can be sure that a message was sent from a
certain host.
E. Message repudiation means a sender can claim they did not actually send a particular
message.
Answer: E

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NO.19 Snort has been used to capture packets on the network. On studying the packets, the
penetration tester finds it to be abnormal. If you were the penetration tester, why
would you find this abnormal?
(Note: The student is being tested on concept learnt during passive OS
fingerprinting, basic TCP/IP connection concepts and the ability to read packet
signatures from a sniff dumo.)
05/20-17:06:45.061034 192.160.13.4:31337 -> 172.16.1.101:1
TCP TTL:44 TOS:0x10 ID:242
***FRP** Seq: 0XA1D95 Ack: 0x53 Win: 0x400
...
05/20-17:06:58.685879 192.160.13.4:31337 ->
172.16.1.101:1024
TCP TTL:44 TOS:0x10 ID:242
***FRP** Seg: 0XA1D95 Ack: 0x53 Win: 0x400
What is odd about this attack? (Choose the most appropriate statement)
A. This is not a spoofed packet as the IP stack has increasing numbers for the three flags.
B. This is back orifice activity as the scan comes from port 31337.
C. The attacker wants to avoid creating a sub-carrier connection that is not normally
valid.
D. There packets were created by a tool; they were not created by a standard IP stack.
Answer: B

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NO.20 What does the term "Ethical Hacking" mean?
A. Someone who is hacking for ethical reasons.
B. Someone who is using his/her skills for ethical reasons.
C. Someone who is using his/her skills for defensive purposes.
D. Someone who is using his/her skills for offensive purposes.
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: ECSS
시험 이름: EC-COUNCIL (EC-Council Certified Security Specialist Practice Test)
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NO.1 John works as an Office Assistant in DataSoft Inc. He has received an e-mail from
duesoft_lotterygroup@us.com with the following message:
The DueSoft Lottery Incorporation
This is to inform you that you have just won a prize of $7,500.00 for this year's Annual Lottery promotion,
which was organized by Msn/Yahoo Lottery in conjunction with DueSoft. We collect active online e-mails
and select five people every year as our winners through an electronic balloting machine. Please reply
within three days of receiving this e-mail with your full details like Name, Address, Sex, Occupation, Age,
State, Telephone number, and Country to claim your prize.
If John replies to this e-mail, which of the following attacks may he become vulnerable to?
A. Salami attack
B. Man-in-the-Middle attack
C. Phishing attack
D. DoS attack
Answer: C

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NO.2 Linux traffic monitoring tools are used to monitor and quickly detect faults in the network or a system.
Which of the following tools are used to monitor traffic of the Linux operating system?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. PsExec
B. IPTraf
C. MRTG
D. PsLogList
E. Ntop
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.3 Which of the following OSI layers is responsible for protocol conversion, data encryption/decryption,
and data compression?
A. Transport layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Data-link layer
D. Network layer
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following attacks CANNOT be detected by an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
B. E-mail spoofing
C. Port scan attack
D. Shoulder surfing
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which of the following is the first computer virus that was used to infect the boot sector of storage
media formatted with the DOS File Allocation Table (FAT) file system?
A. I love you
B. Melissa
C. Tequila
D. Brain
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following types of attacks cannot be prevented by technical measures only?
A. Brute force
B. Ping flood attack
C. Smurf DoS
D. Social engineering
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following proxy servers is also referred to as transparent proxies or forced proxies?
A. Intercepting proxy server
B. Anonymous proxy server
C. Reverse proxy server
D. Tunneling proxy server
Answer: A

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NO.8 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word ___is software that is a subcategory of malware and refers to
unwanted software that performs malicious actions on a user's computer. Some its examples are Trojan,
adware, and spyware.
A. Crimeware
Answer: A

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NO.9 Kerberos is a computer network authentication protocol that allows individuals communicating over a
non-secure network to prove their identity to one another in a secure manner. Which of the following
statements are true about the Kerberos authentication scheme?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Kerberos requires continuous availability of a central server.
B. Kerberos builds on Asymmetric key cryptography and requires a trusted third party.
C. Dictionary and brute force attacks on the initial TGS response to a client may reveal the
subject'spasswords.
D. Kerberos requires the clocks of the involved hosts to be synchronized.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 You are responsible for security at a company that uses a lot of Web applications. You are most
concerned about flaws in those applications allowing some attacker to get into your network. What
method would be best for finding such flaws?
A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Manual penetration testing
C. Automated penetration testing
D. Code review
Answer: A

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NO.11 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security
of www.we-are-secure.com. He is using a tool to crack the wireless encryption keys. The description of
the tool is as follows:
Which of the following tools is John using to crack the wireless encryption keys?
A. AirSnort
B. Kismet
C. PsPasswd
D. Cain
Answer: A

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NO.12 Firewalking is a technique that can be used to gather information about a remote network protected by a
firewall. This technique can be used effectively to perform information gathering attacks. In this technique,
an attacker sends a crafted packet with a TTL value that is set to expire one hop past the firewall. Which
of the following are pre-requisites for an attacker to conduct firewalking?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ICMP packets leaving the network should be allowed.
B. An attacker should know the IP address of the last known gateway before the firewall.
C. There should be a backdoor installed on the network.
D. An attacker should know the IP address of a host located behind the firewall.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 You have just set up a wireless network for customers at a coffee shop. Which of the following are
good security measures to implement?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Using WEP encryption
B. Using WPA encryption
C. Not broadcasting SSID
D. MAC filtering the router
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 Which of the following representatives of incident response team takes forensic backups of the systems
that are the focus of the incident?
A. Lead investigator
B. Information security representative
C. Technical representative
D. Legal representative
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following needs to be documented to preserve evidences for presentation in court?
A. Incident response policy
B. Account lockout policy
C. Separation of duties
D. Chain of custody
Answer: D

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NO.16 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company requires a secure wireless
network. To provide security, you are configuring ISA Server 2006 as a firewall. While configuring
ISA Server 2006, which of the following is NOT necessary?
A. Defining how ISA Server would cache Web contents
B. Defining ISA Server network configuration
C. Setting up of monitoring on ISA Server
D. Configuration of VPN access
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following security protocols are based on the 802.11i standard.?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. WEP
B. WPA2
C. WPA
D. WEP2
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 Which of the following statements are true about routers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Routers are responsible for making decisions about which of several paths network (orInternet)traffic
will follow.
B. Routers do not limit physical broadcast traffic.
C. Routers organize addresses into classes, which are used to determine how to move packets fromone
network to another.
D. Routers act as protocol translators and bind dissimilar networks.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.19 Which of the following statements best describes a certification authority?
A. A certification authority is a type of encryption that uses a public key and a private key pair fordata
encryption.
B. A certification authority is an entity that issues digital certificates for use by other parties.
C. A certification authority is a technique to authenticate digital documents by using
computercryptography.
D. A certification authority is a type of encryption that uses a single key to encrypt and decryp t data.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following security policies will you implement to keep safe your data when you connect
your Laptop to the office network over IEEE 802.11 WLANs?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Using a protocol analyzer on your Laptop to monitor for risks.
B. Using an IPSec enabled VPN for remote connectivity.
C. Using portscanner like nmap in your network.
D. Using personal firewall software on your Laptop.
Answer: B,D

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NO.1 You just purchased the latest DELL computer, which comes pre-installed with Windows 7,
McAfee antivirus software and a host of other applications. You want to connect Ethernet wire to
your cable modem and start using the computer immediately. Windows is dangerously insecure
when unpacked from the box, and there are a few things that you must do before you use it.
A. New installation of Windows should be patched by installing the latest service packs and
hotfixes
B. Key applications such as Adobe Acrobat,Macromedia Flash,Java,Winzip etc.,must have the
latest security patches installed
C. Install a personal firewall and lock down unused ports from connecting to your computer
D. Install the latest signatures for Antivirus software
E. Configure "Windows Update" to automatic
F. Create a non-admin user with a complex password and logon to this account
G. You can start using your computer as vendors such as DELL,HP and IBM would have already
installed the latest service packs.
Answer: A,C,D,E,F

EC-COUNCIL   312-50v8   312-50v8

NO.2 Which of the following is an automated vulnerability assessment tool?
A. Whack a Mole
B. Nmap
C. Nessus
D. Kismet
E. Jill32
Answer: C

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NO.3 Bart is looking for a Windows NT/ 2000/XP command-line tool that can be used to assign,
display,
or modify ACL’s (access control lists) to files or folders and also one that can be used within batch
files.
Which of the following tools can be used for that purpose? (Choose the best answer)
A. PERM.exe
B. CACLS.exe
C. CLACS.exe
D. NTPERM.exe
Answer: B

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NO.4 WEP is used on 802.11 networks, what was it designed for?
A. WEP is designed to provide a wireless local area network (WLAN) with a level of security and
privacy comparable to what it usually expected of a wired LAN.
B. WEP is designed to provide strong encryption to a wireless local area network (WLAN) with a
lever of integrity and privacy adequate for sensible but unclassified information.
C. WEP is designed to provide a wireless local area network (WLAN) with a level of availability
and privacy comparable to what is usually expected of a wired LAN.
D. WEOP is designed to provide a wireless local area network (WLAN) with a level of privacy
comparable to what it usually expected of a wired LAN.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Harold is the senior security analyst for a small state agency in New York. He has no other
security professionals that work under him, so he has to do all the security-related tasks for the
agency. Coming from a computer hardware background, Harold does not have a lot of experience
with security methodologies and technologies, but he was the only one who applied for the
position. Harold is currently trying to run a Sniffer on the agency's network to get an idea of what
kind of traffic is being passed around, but the program he is using does not seem to be capturing
anything. He pours through the Sniffer's manual, but cannot find anything that directly relates to
his problem. Harold decides to ask the network administrator if he has any thoughts on the
problem. Harold is told that the Sniffer was not working because the agency's network is a
switched network, which cannot be sniffed by some programs without some tweaking. What
technique could Harold use to sniff his agency's switched network?
A. ARP spoof the default gateway
B. Conduct MiTM against the switch
C. Launch smurf attack against the switch
D. Flood the switch with ICMP packets
Answer: A

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NO.6 A security analyst in an insurance company is assigned to test a new web application that will
be
used by clients to help them choose and apply for an insurance plan. The analyst discovers that
the application is developed in ASP scripting language and it uses MSSQL as a database
backend. The analyst locates the application's search form and introduces the following code in
the search input fielD.
IMG SRC=vbscript:msgbox("Vulnerable");> originalAttribute="SRC"
originalPath="vbscript:msgbox("Vulnerable");>"
When the analyst submits the form, the browser returns a pop-up window that says "Vulnerable".
Which web applications vulnerability did the analyst discover?
A. Cross-site request forgery
B. Command injection
C. Cross-site scripting
D. SQL injection
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL   312-50v8기출문제   312-50v8

NO.7 You are the CIO for Avantes Finance International, a global finance company based in Geneva.
You are responsible for network functions and logical security throughout the entire corporation.
Your company has over 250 servers running Windows Server, 5000 workstations running
Windows Vista, and 200 mobile users working from laptops on Windows 7.
Last week, 10 of your company's laptops were stolen from salesmen while at a conference in
Amsterdam. These laptops contained proprietary company information. While doing damage
assessment on the possible public relations nightmare this may become, a news story leaks about
the stolen laptops and also that sensitive information from those computers was posted to a blog
online.
What built-in Windows feature could you have implemented to protect the sensitive information on
these laptops?
A. You should have used 3DES which is built into Windows
B. If you would have implemented Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) which is built into Windows,the
sensitive information on the laptops would not have leaked out
C. You should have utilized the built-in feature of Distributed File System (DFS) to protect the
sensitive information on the laptops
D. You could have implemented Encrypted File System (EFS) to encrypt the sensitive files on the
laptops
Answer: D

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NO.1 The current WLAN standard of a company has been upgraded from IEEE 802.11b to IEEE 802.11n.
Due to this upgradation, what will be the change in the data rate?
A. 11 Mbps to 54+ Mbps
B. 11 Mbps to 256 Mbps
C. 11 Mbps to 54 Mbps
D. 11 Mbps to 128 Mbps
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following are true about a beacon frame?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is sent as a reply to a probe request.
B. It contains the SSIDs that the AP supports.
C. It works as an associated frame.
D. It is transmitted periodically to announce the presence of a wireless LAN network.
Answer: BD

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NO.3 Which of the following security policies will you implement to keep safe your data when you connect
your Laptop to the office network over IEEE 802.11 WLANs? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose two.
A. Using portscanner like nmap in your network.
B. Using personal firewall software on your Laptop.
C. Using an IPSec enabled VPN for remote connectivity.
D. Using a protocol analyzer on your Laptop to monitor for risks.
Answer: B, C

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NO.4 In an 802.11b wireless network, which of the following two channels can be used so that there is no
interference among the access points? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all
that apply.
A. Channel 1 and channel 8
B. Channel 1 and channel 5
C. Channel 6 and channel 11
D. Channel 3 and channel 9
Answer: CD

CWNP기출문제   PW0-070   PW0-070   PW0-070최신덤프

NO.5 Which of the following IEEE 802.11 amendments can use three radio chains per band to transmit
data?
A. IEEE 802.11h
B. IEEE 802.11g
C. IEEE 802.11n
D. IEEE 802.11a
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following types of communication is used by IEEE-11.a, IEEE-11.b, and IEEE-11.g
devices?
A. Full-duplex
B. Half-duplex
C. Simplex
D. DiplexAnswer: B

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NO.7 You work as a Network Administrator for McRoberts Inc. You are configuring a wireless network for the
company. You decide to use 802.11b wireless access points (WAPs) for the network. Which of the
following could affect the range of the network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. The 5-500GHz interference
B. The 2.4GHz interference
C. A long length of antenna extension cable
D. A very high number of wireless users
Answer: B, C

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NO.8 Which of the following is an advantage of using wireless IEEE 802.11g over IEEE 802.11b?
A. Wireless standard 802.11g has a greater range of distance than 802.11b
B. Wireless standard 802.11g is easier to implement than 802.11b
C. Wireless standard 802.11g is faster than 802.11b.
D. Wireless standard 802.11g supports Windows XP and 802.11b does not.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following wireless techniques provides the highest data transfer speed?
A. Infrared
B. 802.11b
C. Bluetooth
D. 802.11
Answer: B

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NO.10 Place the characteristics under their corresponding types of antenna used in Wireless LAN
(WLAN)?
A.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following units measure relative RF power? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Decibel Relative to a Milliwatt (dBm)
B. Decibel (dB)
C. Milliwatt (mW)
D. Decibel isotropic (dBi)
E. Decibel dipole (dBd)
F. Watt (W)
Answer: BDE

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NO.12 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has an 802.11b wireless
network. You have configured an internal antenna with the wireless access point (WAP). You want to
increase the range of the WAP. Which of the following steps will you take to accomplish the task?
A. Install a wireless bridge on the network.
B. Install an external antenna.
C. Install a router on the network.
D. Install one more internal antenna.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Fill in the blank with the correct value. The 802.11g wireless standard applies to wireless LANs and
provides transmission speeds of up to Mbps.
A. 54
Answer: A

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NO.14 You work as a Network Administrator for WebTech Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based wireless
network.The company's management tells you to implement multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO)
transmission technology for wireless communication. Which of the following standards supports MIMO
technology?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11n
D. 802.11
Answer: C

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NO.15 You need to add a separate wireless network card to your customer's laptop. You need to select the
appropriate expansion card type. Which of the following is NOT an expansion slot you will find in the
laptop?
A. PCMCIA TYPE III
B. PCI
C. PCMCIA TYPE I
D. Express
Answer: B

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NO.16 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network.
You have to configure a wireless LAN on your network. Two separate buildings in front of each other are
to be connected wirelessly. Which of the following steps will you choose to accomplish the task?
A. Lay underground fiber optic cable backbone between the two buildings. Configure Ethernet network
including network of both building.
B. Configure one Wireless Access Point (WAP) in each building. Place one outdoor Yagi-Uda antenna in
each building facing towards each other.
C. Configure one WAP in each building. Place one outdoor Omni antenna in each building.
D. Configure one WAP in each building. Place one outdoor Yagi-Uda antenna in one building.
Place one outdoor Omni antenna in the other building.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Two RF signals, shown below, are operating at the same frequency of 2.142 MHz, but with different
amplitudes. Which of the following statements is true about these two signals?
A. The signal with a higher amplitude (Signal A) has less power than the signal with a lower amplitude
(Signal B).
B. Both signals have the same power.
C. The power of the two signals depends on the medium through which they are propagating.
D. The signal with a higher amplitude (Signal A) has more power than the signal with a lower amplitude
(Signal B).
Answer: D

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NO.18 You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Inc. The company has a Wireless LAN network.
You want to configure 802.11a parameters on the controller of the network. Which of the following
commands is valid to accomplish the task?
A. WLAN 802.11a
B. 802.11a
C. config 802.11a
D. standard 802.11a
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following hardware uses flash memory technology?
A. DDR2 SDRAM
B. Secure digital card
C. PCMCIA card
D. Smart card reader
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following organizations provides a seal of approval to interoperable devices?
A. IEEE
B. FCC
C. ETSI
D. Wi-Fi Alliance
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: TT0-201
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NO.1 Which of the following connects the Foreign Exchange Station (FXS) portion of an Analog Telephone
Adapter (ATA) to an analog phone?
A.USB connector.
B.RJ-11 connector.
C.RJ-45 connector.
D.RS-232 connector.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following best describes what occurs to a protocol data unit as information passes from
layer 1 to layer 7?
A.Each layer reads all remaining protocol data units and adds information specific to that layer.
B. Each layer reads all remaining protocol data units and determines how to route the packet.
C.As data units are passed up the protocol stack, each layer removes information relevant to the function
of that layer.
D.As data units are passed down the protocol stack, each layer adds information appropriate to the
function of that layer.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You have implemented DiffServ to describe a collection of service policies that determine how your
network equipment will classify and condition voice data in a traffic flow scheme. What is the accepted
name for this group?
A.Class
B.Group
C.VLAN
D.Domain
Answer: D

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NO.4 The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) the ASCII text standard to format its messages. The H.323
protocol uses ASN.1 binary code. Which layer of the OSI/RM is responsible for translating, processing
and reading ASN.1 and ASCII messages?
A.Network
B.Session
C.Physical
D.Presentation
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your customer has asked you to enable fax messages to be delivered to her computer so she can read
it in her e-mail. Which protocol should you implement on your convergence device?
A.T.30
B.T.34
C.T.37
D.T.38
Answer: C

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NO.6 When a technician connects a North American T-1 trunk to a European E-1 trunk using a conversion
device, which of the following will result?
A.No less than 80% of the T-1 can be used.
B.No more than 80% of the E-1 trunk can be used.
C.No connection can be made between E-1 and T-1.
D.The connection will fail, because E-1 uses out-of-band transmission, and T-1 lines use in-band
transmission.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following must be used by both an 802.11i Wi-fi card and a IP-enabled PBX network
adapter?
A.A Virtual LAN Identifier (VID).
B.A Secure Set Identifier (SSID) entry.
C.A Media Access Control (MAC) address.
D.A Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) entry.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When data is sent down to the Session layer of the OSI/RM the PDU consists of which encapsulated
components?
A.Physical header, Network header, Data
B. Data, Application header, Presentation header
C.Network header, Data Link header, Physical header
D.Application header, Presentation header, Transport header
Answer: B

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NO.9 You are helping design an SIP implementation for an existing network. Which of the following is the
most important element to verify?
A.Whether or not the company uses fire-grade cabling.
B.Whether or not the company has implemented QoS.
C.Whether or not the company Web server supports SSL.
D.Whether or not the company layer 2 switches have fault tolerance in place.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following is a concern when implementing IPsec for SIP-based voice calls behind a
firewall that implements Network Address Translation (NAT)?
A.IPsec doesn't natively support SIP.
B.Encryption causes increased overhead.
C.You must implement tunnel mode using the AH security protocol.
D.You must implement transport mode using the AH security protocol.
Answer: B

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NO.11 You have decided to use the following range of IP addresses:
172.16.0.0/24
Which of the following will allow you to avoid deploying NAT traversal workarounds?
A.Deploy a STUN server.
B.Deploy a Session Border Controller (SBC).
C.Use registered IP addresses for all devices.
D.Use the default subnet mask for your IP address range.
Answer: C

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NO.12 In which of the following layers of the OSI/RM would you find the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)?
A.Network
B.Physical
C.Session
D.Application
Answer: D

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NO.13 Consider the following image of a Media Access Control (MAC) address:QV12116bY$X%&,*+
Which of the following describes the portion designated by letter A?
A.The 48 bit ID code, known as the Mac-48.
B.The 48 bit ID code, known as the EUI-48.
C.The 24 bit vendor code, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI)
D.The 64 bit interface serial number, known as the known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI).
Answer: C

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NO.14 You have been asked to recommend an appropriate network bandwidth for a medium to large business.
This business will use it for their IP phones, as well as their data connection. Which of the following would
you recommend?
A.DS0
B.DS1
C.ISDN BRI
D.ISDN PRI
Answer: D

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NO.15 You have been given the following in CIDR notation: 152.2.100.1/25. How many subnets can you
create, and how many IP addresses can each subnet have?
A.55 subnets, with 1024 addresses per subnet
B.126 subnets, with 512 addresses per subnet
C.128 subnets, with 126 addresses per subnet
D.1024 subnets, with 55 addresses per subnet
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following is the correct ordering of protocol data units, starting from Layer 1 of the
OSI/RM to Layer 7?
A.Packet, data, frame, bits
B.Bits, frame, data, packet
C.Data, segment, packet, frame
D.Frame, packet, segment, data
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following is most likely to be used to identify a device to be called in a hunt group?
A.A Virtual LAN Identifier (VID).
B.A Secure Set Identifier (SSID) entry.
C.A Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) entry.
D.A Media Access Control (MAC) address.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following describes how the host portion of IPv4 and IPv6 addresses are created?
A.All IPv4 and Ipv6 host addresses are determined by ICANN.
B.All IPv4 and IPv6 host addresses are based on the host's MAC address.
C.The host portion of an IPv4 address is determined by ICANN. The host portion of an IPv6 address is
determined according to the multicast address.
D.The host portion of an IPv4 address is determined arbitrarily according to the value of the subnet mask.
The host portion of an IPv6 address is determined from the host's MAC address.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following devices operates at Layer 2 of the OSI/RM and is considered the ideal device
for creating a new broadcast domain for a voice device?
A.Hub
B.Bridge
C.Router
D.Switch
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which protocol does is generally used to establish calls in SIP implementations?
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.RTP
D.H.225
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: RF0-001
시험 이름: CompTIA (RFID+ Certification)
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Q&A: 162 문항
업데이트: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 When firmware upgrades become available, which of the following should the technician consider
FIRST?
A. How to install the upgrade.
B. When to schedule the upgrade.
C. Whether the upgrade can be downloaded from the internet.
D. The benefits of new upgrade.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A company wants to track personnel using RFID with a resolution within 10 feet (3.1 meters). Which of
the following RFID systems would provide the BEST results?
A. Active Real Time Locating System (RTLS)
B. Passive ultra high frequency (UHF) RFID system with hand-held interrogators
C. Passive high frequency (HF) RFID system with interrogators at entry points
D. Global Positioning System (GPS)
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following conditions would be MOST likely to cause a ghost tag read?
A. The interrogator did not pass electronic product code (EPC) compliance testing.
B. There is a broken strap between the chip and the antenna on the tag.
C. There are too many tags within an interrogator zone.
D. There is RF interference in an interrogator zone.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following technologies would provide the BEST read range when attached to a
corrugated metal freight container that is 40 feet (12.4 meters)?
A. Passive 13.56 MHz from a one watt interrogator/antenna
B. Passive 860 - 960 MHz from a 4 watt interrogator/antenna C. Active 433.92 MHz, operating at 10 mW
D. Active 2450 MHz, operating at 10 mW
Answer: C

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NO.5 Tags placed on small boxes uniformly stacked on a pallet are unreadable unless the pallet is rotated.
This is a symptom of tag:
A. propagation.
B. size.
C. shadowing.
D. polarity.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Loss of connection between an interrogator and the edgeware/middleware would result in which of the
following?
A. Only active RFID tag data would be processed.
B. No tag data would be processed.
C. Tag data would be sent directly to the Warehouse Management System (WMS).
D. Only interrogator status would be tracked.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Ideally, as a tag passes though the antenna read window it should be:
A. inside metal foil.
B. on the same plane as the antenna.
C. at least 30 feet (9.3 meters) from the antenna.
D. facing away from antenna.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following RFID tags would be BEST for inconspicuous tagging of assets containing a
maximum of eight bytes of data and are inductively coupled?
A. Active 433.92 MHz tag with strategically installed fixed interrogators.
B. Passive 13.56 MHz tag that is affixed to the asset and camouflaged requiring continuous loop
interrogation.
C. Passive Gen 2 tag requiring line of sight backscatter interrogation.
D. Active 433.92 MHz tag requiring modulated backscatter interrogation.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Desktop industrial RFID-enabled bar code printers handle an inoperative tag by:
A. sending an error to the host.
B. printing 'void' or some other marking on the label.
C. ejecting the label.
D. ignoring it and continuing.
Answer: B

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NO.10 When troubleshooting an interrogation zone, an operator observes that the interrogator is not
responding to external input or reading tags. The lights are on indicating it has power and network
connectivity. Which of the following would be the next step for the operator to take?
A. Replace the antenna cable.
B. Replace the interrogator.
C. Reboot the interrogator.
D. Reboot the antenna.
Answer: C

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NO.11 For a corrugated case filled with liquor bottles containing metal lids, all of the following locations are
acceptable for optimizing the performance of a passive high frequency (HF) RFID smart label EXCEPT on
the: (Select TWO).
A. side near the bottom where there is the most amount of liquid.
B. side near the top where there is the least amount of liquid.
C. bottom where there is the most amount of glass.
D. top near the metal lids.
Answer: AD

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NO.12 In a facility with several automated print and apply printers, cases frequently get to the palletizer without
RFID labels. One way to correct this is to:
A. install an interrogation zone down stream from the labeler with a reject system.
B. have an interrogator on the palletizer.
C. use better quality labels.
D. use a hand-held interrogator to scan for missing labels at end of production line.
Answer: A

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NO.13 While troubleshooting an interrogation zone, a technician discovers that the antenna wires have torn
free of their connectors. Which of the following would be the FIRST step for the technician to take?
A. Secure the cables so they cannot tear free again.
B. Crimp a new end on the cable.
C. Power down the interrogator.
D. Attach the repaired cable to the antenna.
Answer: C

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NO.14 A new batch of tags is received for an existing system. When the new tags are introduced into the
system, the interrogation zones stop transmitting tag data. Which of the following is MOST likely the
source of the problem?
A. The new tags are all bad.
B. The new tags are the wrong type for the system.
C. A tag virus has been introduced by the new tags.
D. The interrogators have issued the kill command to the tags.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Cases are going to be tagged and stored in a humid, high temperature area. Which of the following
types of labels would be needed?
A. Poly-coated with gum adhesive.
B. Direct thermal with gum adhesive.
C. Poly-coated with water base adhesive.
D. Paper with gum adhesive.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following materials have absorptive properties in relation to ultra high frequency (UHF)?
(Select TWO).
A. Damp cardboard
B. Glass
C. Conductive liquids
D. Metal
Answer: AC

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NO.17 It is important to know where an RFID inlay is located within a tag during printing because: (Select
TWO).
A. the inlay location directs the printer to print landscape or portrait.
B. the inlay sets the speed of the printer.
C. printing over the chip may cause damage.
D. timing from leading edge is critical to the encoding process.
Answer: CD

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NO.18 An Electronic Product Code (EPC) Class 1 Gen 2 RFID system reads the EPC data from memory bank
zero, but the 64-bit EPC code is always zero. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the
problem?
A. The EPC code is stored in Bank 1.
B. The tag has been killed.
C. The EPC code was never written to the tag.
D. The access password is zero.
Answer: A

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NO.19 RFID media should be stored in:
A. electrostatic discharge (ESD) protected packaging.
B. metal containers.
C. rolls of ten.
D. the order that it was received.
Answer: A

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NO.20 All of the following are true of widely implemented "slap and ship" programs EXCEPT they:
A. make it difficult to optimize label application for the container.
B. are more susceptible to electrostatic discharge (ESD) than in-line automatic applicators.
C. are lower in cost than application in manufacturing.
D. are more likely to break the bond between the antenna and the chip.
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: PK1-003
시험 이름: CompTIA (CompTIA Project+ Beta Exam)
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NO.1 A project team is comfortable working as a group and has accepted all the project ground rules. They
support each other to reach the project goals. Which of the following stages of team development is the
project team demonstrating?
A. Storming
B. Performing
C. Conforming
D. Forming
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following risk response strategies involves shifting the negative impact of a threat, along
with ownership of the response, to a third party?
A. Risk transfer
B. Risk avoidance
C. Risk sharing
D. Risk mitigation
Answer: A

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NO.3 Two of the stakeholders cannot agree on the project timeline or budget. The project is critical to the
success of the company. Which of the following actions should the project manager take NEXT?
A. Invite all of the stakeholders to a meeting to discuss project requirements.
B. Document the points of agreement and create the timeline and budget based upon the expectations of
the majority of the stakeholders.
C. Modify the project scope to bring it into alignment with the stakeholders expectations.
D. Inform the stakeholders that the project will be cancelled if they cannot agree.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is the purpose of a Pareto diagram?
A. To show the sequence in which work will be performed
B. To create the process that will complete the project
C. To determine the critical path
D. To direct team efforts to the areas that will have the most impact
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following tools are used for quality planning? (Select TWO).
A. Cost / Benefit analysis
B. Network diagram
C. Benchmarking
D. Critical Path Method (CPM)
E. Parametric estimating
Answer: AC

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NO.6 A project manager is in a projectized organization managing a particular project. A department manager
has repeatedly requested a change to the scope of the project which was previously denied. The project
is currently behind schedule. Which of the following would be the BEST way to deal with the managers
repeated request?
A. Request the manager fill out a formal request for the change and file it with the project management
office.
B. Have a team member meet with the manager so the project can stay on schedule.
C. Ask the project sponsor to respond to the department manager.
D. Implement the change as requested by the manager and inform the project sponsor.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A project manager reports directly to the project management office of a company. All project team
members report to a functional manager; however, all the team members work assignments are made by
the project manager. Which of the following types of organizational structures does this represent?
A. Weak Matrix
B. Functional
C. Strong Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following describes a qualitative risk analysis tool that assigns ratings to project risk
factors based upon the likelihood of occurrence and the affect it will have on the project?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Risk register
C. Probability and impact matrix
D. Decision tree analysis
Answer: C

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NO.9 In which of the following organization types is it LEAST likely that a conflict regarding competing
demands for resources would take place?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Balanced Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: D

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NO.10 A project manager receives a request for a minor change to one of the deliverables. Which of the
following documents would MOST likely be impacted?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Project charter
C. Communication plan
D. Quality plan
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following activities would happen LAST in procurement management?
A. Request seller responses
B. Perform contract administration
C. Perform vendor selection
D. Perform a make or buy analysis
Answer: B

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NO.12 Who has the MOST influence over project decisions?
A. Project team members
B. End users
C. Key stakeholders
D. Project manager
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following would MOST likely be included in a project scope document?
A. WBS
B. Quality metrics
C. Risk responses
D. KPIs
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following would be a direct output of the initiating process group? (Select TWO).
A. Project charter
B. Project management plan
C. Statement of Work (SOW)
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
E. Preliminary scope statement
Answer: AE

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NO.15 The communication plan for a project is a subset of which of the following documents?
A. Project charter
B. Risk management plan
C. Project schedule
D. Project plan
Answer: D

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NO.16 Several key resources will be unavailable at the end of the project. The key stakeholders want to
outsource the project to a third party. Which of the following risk responses is described in this situation?
A. Risk avoidance
B. Risk mitigation
C. Risk acceptance
D. Risk transference
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following tools is the BEST to measure data organized in time sequence?
A. Run chart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following quality control tools illustrates the various factors that may be linked to potential
problems or effects?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Histogram
C. Run chart
D. Scatter diagram
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following should be created in the project closing documentation? (Select TWO).
A. Closure report summarizing costs
B. Responsibility assessment matrix
C. Lessons learned
D. Project timeline
E. Statement of Work (SOW)
Answer: AC

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NO.20 A project budget has been reduced by 10 percent, but the project has a critical deadline. Which of the
following should the project manager do FIRST to complete the project on time?
A. Lower the quality standards for the finished product.
B. Analyze the impact of the change.
C. Eliminate 10 percent of the projects resources.
D. Document the approved change request.
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which of the following are process groups in the project life cycle? (Select THREE).
A. Accepting
B. Mitigating
C. Avoiding
D. Initiating
E. Closing
F. Planning
Answer: DEF

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NO.22 Which of the following describes the LOWEST level of a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
A. Technical specifications
B. Project performance reports
C. Work packages
D. Functional specifications
Answer: C

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NO.23 A project manager is two weeks into a project when an unexpected delay occurs. Material that is
needed to complete the project could be available in three business days; however, the project team
believes that estimate is unrealistic and that it will take five business days for the material to arrive. The
project manager was informed by another employee in the material company that it could take up to
thirteen days to receive the materials. Which of the following estimates should be given to the project
sponsor?
A. 5 business days
B. 6 business days
C. 8 business days
D. 13 business daysb
Answer: B

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NO.24 A purpose of formal project closure is to:
A. assess blame for the failure of the project.
B. provide lessons learned for future projects.
C. start a new project.
D. outline the responsibilities of each team member.
Answer: B

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NO.25 A customer does not have the staff available to complete a particular project, but anticipates that more
staff will be hired in the future. While the project budget has been established, the project scope has not.
Which of the following is the BEST action for the project manager to take?
A. Start the project immediately because the funding is available.
B. Start the important project; the project manager can define the scope.
C. Do not start the project because the customer has not provided enough resources.
D. Do not start the project until the scope has been clearly defined.
Answer: D

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NO.26 Design, launch, review and test are examples of which of the following work breakdown structure (WBS)
schemes?
A. Functions
B. Organizational units
C. Product components
D. Geographical areas
Answer: A

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NO.27 A project manager is presented with a change request for an ongoing project. Which of the following
would be the FIRST action?
A. Update the project plan to accommodate the changes.
B. Perform an impact analysis.
C. Organize a stakeholder meeting to review the changes.
D. Change the project scope to reflect the change request.
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which of the following BEST describes the critical path of a project?
A. A modified version of a project schedule taking into account limited resources and external
dependencies.
B. The length of time between the two most critical milestones of a project.
C. The shortest possible path through a project, represented by the sum of the duration of all scheduled
activities, with zero float.
D. A PDM network diagram illustrating, in detail, all mandatory, discretionary and external dependencies
for a given project.
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which of the following are required to complete the pre-project setup? (Select THREE).
A. Completion of approved change control documents
B. Preparation of the project charter
C. Completion of the work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Obtaining final approval of the project charter
E. Validation of the project
F. Completion of the key performance indicators (KPIs)
Answer: BDE

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NO.30 During a project status meeting a positive project risk is identified and is within the teams control.
Which of the following would be the BEST response?
A. Accept the risk.
B. Transfer the risk.
C. Mitigate the risk.
D. Exploit the risk.
Answer: D

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